1. The hypothesis proposed by Kant and LaPlace on the origin of solar
system
A) Tidal hypothesis B) Nebular hypothesis
C) Planetesimal hypothesis D) Cloud hypothesis
2. Karst topography is characteristic of ----------- terrain
A) Granitic B) Basaltic
C) Limestone D) Granulitic
3. The topographic feature typical of formerly glaciated
regions
A) Hanging valley B) V-shaped valley
C) Yaardang D) Cuesta
4. A river shows meandering course in its ---------- stage
A) Youthful B) Old
C) Mountainous D) Mature
5. The range of wave length of the
visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
A) 0.7 – 3.0μm B) 0.7 – 1.0μm
C) 0.4 – 0.7μm D) 3 - 5μm
6. The basic spatial entities in GIS are
A) Scale, Projection and Generalization
B) Points, Lines and Areas
C) Projections, Legends and
Georeference
D) Latitude, Longitude and
Coordinates
7. “Rubber sheeting” in GIS is related to
A) Data editing B) Data transfer
C) Data input D) Map projection
8. Which is not true of GPS?
A) Useful in photogrammetry
B) Developed by United States
C) The orbital height of satellites
is > 20000 Kms
D) It has 42 satellites
9. Which is not true of lineation?
A) It is a directional property
B) When lineation is present foliation
is also always present
C) It may be primary or secondary
D) Is useful in understanding the
structural history of the rocks
10.
An unconformity in which younger sedimentary rocks overlie igneous rocks
A) Angular unconformity B) Disconformity
C) Non-sequence D) Non-conformity
11. A chevron fold is one in which
A) The axis and crest do not coincide
B) The crest is rounded
C) The crest is pointed
D) The hinge line is always plunging
12. Sedimentary structures are not useful in
A) Interpreting palaeocurrent
directions
B) Establishing stratigraphic
sequence
C) Understanding the environment of
deposition of rocks
D) Determining the age of formation
13. The outcrop of a bed will be a
straight line on a map, irrespective of the topography, if the bed is
A) Vertical B) Dipping
C) Horizontal D) Affected by folding
14. The angle which a fault plane makes with the vertical
plane
A) Dip B) Rake C) Hade D) Pitch
15. There is a 4cm long line in a map
of 1: 100000 scale. What will be the length of that line in a map of the same
area of 1: 25000 scale?
A) 16 cm B) 12
cm C) 8cm D) 2cm
16. Which is true of a craton?
A) Mainly covered by sedimentary
rocks
B) Is a very small structural unit of
the earth’s crust
C) Largely unaffected by later
orogenies
D) Consists mainly of Cambrian rocks
17. Which one of the following was not
suggested by Alfred Wegener as evidence of Continental Drift Hypothesis?
A) Fit of continents
B) Distribution of glacial sediments
in different continents
C) Similarity in geological
structures
D) Sea-floor spreading
18. The period in which the Alpine-Himalayan orogeny took
place
A) Tertiary B) Cambrian
C) Ordovician D) Cretaceous
19. Which one of the
following is true?
A) The Indian plate
has both continental and oceanic components
B) The Antarctic
plate has oceanic component only
C) The Arabian plate
is a major plate
D) The Eurasian
plate has continental component only
20. Mid-ocean ridges are associated with
A) Convergent
boundary B) Divergent boundary
C) Subduction zone
D) Conservative boundary
21. Among the following, which period has
the shortest duration?
A) Tertiary B) Quaternary
C) Cambrian D)
Triassic
22. Match the following and choose the
correct answer
Unit Part of
classification/Scale
1. System a. Lithostratigraphic
2. Zone b. Chronostratigraphic
3. Formation c. Geologic Time Scale
4. Era d. Biostratigraphic
A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a B) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a,
C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c D) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
23. The duration of time represented by an
unconformity
A) Hiatus B) Diastem C) Nonsequence D)
Series
24. Which is true of an index fossil?
A) Limited
geographical distribution
B) Narrow
stratigraphic range
C) Large in size
D) Small in numbers
25. Which is the largest unit in the
Geological Time Scale?
A) Eon B) Epoch
C) Period D) Era
26. Manganese deposits in Central India are
associated with
A) Khondalite B) Charnockite
C) Greywacke D) Gondite
27. Match the
following and choose the correct answer
Formation Age
1. Cuddalore sandstone a. Devonian
2. Muth quartzite b. Tertiary
3. Chari formation c. Cretaceous
4. Uttatur formation d. Jurassic
A) 1-b,2-a,3-d,4-c B) 1-c,2-d,3-a,4-b
C) 1-d,2-c,3-a,4-b D) 1-a,2-c,3-b,4-d
28. A prominent anorthosite body in Kerala
is located at
A) Perinthatta B) Ambalavayal
C) Chengannur D) Angadimogar
29. The rock in which graphite is mainly
found in Kerala
A) Charnockite B) Granite
C) Khondalite D) Limestone
30. The rocks in which Glossopteris is found
A) Upper Gondwana B) Lower Gondwana
C) Upper Siwalik D)
Karewas
31. The stratigraphic equivalent of Cuddapah
Supergroup in North India
A) Rajmahal Traps B)
Vindhyan Supergroup
C) Delhi Supergroup
D) Aravalli Supergroup
32. The very old algal structure-bearing
rocks of Rajasthan are called
A) Stromatolites B) Stalactites
C) Steatite D) Stalagmite
33. The diamond-bearing rocks of central
India belongs to
A) Aravalli Supergroup
B) Bhima Supergroup
C) Vindhyan
Supergroup D) Sargur Supergroup
34. Match the following and choose the
correct answer
Formation
Environment of deposition
1. Talchir tillite a. Marine
2. Barakar formation b. Glacial
3. Trichnopoly formation c. Fluviatile
4. Karewa formation d. Arid
e. Lacustrine
A) 1-a,2-b,3-e,4-c B) 1-c,2-a,3-d,4-e
C) 1-d,2-b,3-e,4-c D) 1-b,2-c,3-a,4-e
35. Identify the
gastropod
A) Paradoxide B) Ostraea
C) Productus D) Physa
36. Pygidium and glabella form part of
A) Cephalapod B) Trilobite
C) Graptolite D) Pelecypod
37. Star fishes, Sea urchins and blastoids
belong to the phylum
A) Brachiopoda B) Coelenterata
C) Echinodermata D) Arthropoda
38. Foraminifers are found in
A) Marine water only B) Brackish water only
C) Fresh water only D) All the three waters
39. The stratigraphic range of Brachiopods
A) Upper Devonian to Recent
B) Upper Cambrian to Permian
C) Lower Cambrian to Recent
D) Middle Ordovician to Triassic
40. The half-life of Carbon-14 is
A) 5570 years B) 55000years
C) 550000 years D) 550 years
41. When the strike of a bed is N-S, the
true dip will be towards
A) North East B) East or West
C) North West D) None of the three
42. Agnatha was the earliest
A) Trilobite B) Reptile
C) Brachiopod D) Fish
43. Among the following which is the most
primitive horse?
A) Eohippus B)
Hipparion
C) Merychippus D) Equus
44. Which of the following did not happen
in the evolution of man?
A) Assumption of erect posture
B) Lengthening of arms
C) Reduction in the number and size of teeth
D) Increase in cranial capacity
45. The crystal form
with least number of faces
A) Pinacoid B) Dome C) Pedion D) Pyramid
46. Which one is the type mineral of a
hemimorphic class?
A) Barite B) Tourmaline C) Beryl D) Gypsum
47. The crystal
system characterized by three mutually perpendicular crystallographic axes of
unequal length
A) Tetragonal B) Triclinic
C) Hexagonal D) Orthorhombic
48. Contact goniometer is used for measuring
A) The number of crystal faces
B) The interfacial angles of crystals
C) The absolute hardness of crystals
D) Refractive Index of crystals
49. A mineral commonly exhibiting
penetration twin
A) Fluorite B)
Spinel C) Cassiterite D) Zircon
50. The crystal class exhibiting maximum
number of elements of symmetry
A) Hexoctahedral B) Ditetragonal dipyramidal
C) Orthorhombic normal D) Dihexagonal dipyramidal
51. Which is an open crystal form?
A) Scalenohedron B) Trapezohedron
C) Dihexagonal dipyramid D) Brachydome
52. Mineral which generally shows zero
birefringence?
A) Hypersthene B) Beryl C)
Garnet D) Staurolite
53. The minerals crystallizing under which
system may exhibit dichroism?
A) Isometric B) Tetragonal C)
Monoclinic D) Orthorhombic
54. When the
refractive index of the mineral is much higher than the mounting medium, the
relief is
A) High negative B) High positive C) Low negative D) Low positive
55. Identify the
mineral which commonly causes pleochroic haloes in biotite
A) Quartz
B) Apatite
C) Zircon D)
Magnetite
56. Match the
following and choose the correct answer
Mineral Main cation
1. Almandine a. Fe-Al
2. Spessartite b. Mg-Al
3. Grossularite c. Ca-Fe
4. Pyrope d. Mn-Al
e. Ca-Al
A) 1-b,2-a,3-c,4-e B) 1-c,2-a,3-d,4-e
C) 1-a,2-d,3-e,4-b D) 1-e,2-c,3-a,4-d
57. Which is an orthorhombic carbonate
mineral?
A) Dolomite
B) Siderite
C) Rhodocrocite D) Aragonite
58. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
A) Gypsum is softer than calcite but harder
than apatite
B) Quartz is harder than apatite but softer
than topaz
C) Corundum is softer than topaz but harder
than orthoclase
D) Fluorite is softer than calcite but
harder than Talc
59. Under which silicate family comes
zoisite?
A) Pyroxene B)
Epidote C) Feldspathoid D) Olivine
60. Which one of the following has the
highest specific gravity?
A) Cinnabar B)
Orthoclase C) Haematite D)
Chalcopyrite
61. Which one is a phosphate mineral?
A) Ilmenite
B) Rutile C) Monazite D) None of the three
62. Which one is not a polymorph of
SiO2?
A) Quartz B)
Opal C) Tridymite D) Stishovite
63. Among the following which is the hardest
sulphide mineral?
A) Chalcopyrite B) Molybdenite C)
Pyrite D) Stibnite
64. Identify the halide mineral
A) Sphene
B) Celestite
C) Selenite
D) Sylvite
65. The most
abundant element in the crust of the earth
A) Nitrogen B) Aluminium
C) Oxygen D) Silicon
66. Which one shows the highest pH in
nature?
A) CO2 – free water in contact with
ultramafic rocks
B) Weatherd ore solution containing pyrite
C) Rain water
D) Soil containing decayed organic matter
67. Na, K, Rb and Cs are principally
---------- elements
A) Siderophile B) Chalcophile
C) Atmophile D) Lithophile
68. Barium is a common trace element in
A) Hypersthene and olivine B) Potash feldspar
and biotite
C) Hornblende and olivine D) Garnet and
epidote
69. Siderolites are mainly made up of
A) Siderite and calcite B) Nickel iron and
silicates
C) Silica-rich glass D) Olivine and pyroxene
70. For all exothermic reactions change in
enthalpy is
A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero D) Very high
71. The most widespread igneous rock in the
crust of the earth
A) Granite B) Rhyolite C) Basalt D) Andesite
72. Which is an undersaturated rock?
A) Diorite B) Gabbro C) Rhyolite D) Dunite
73. In Poikilitic texture
A) Smaller crystals are enclosed in larger
crystals
B) Larger crystals are enveloped in a
groundmass of smaller crystals
C) All crystals are of the same size
D) Glass exceeds crystals
74. Aplites are commonly found as
A) Laccoliths B) Batholiths C)
Dykes D) Lopoliths
75. Minette is a variety of
A) Amphibole B) Carbonatite
C) Lamprophyre D) Basalt
76. Which amphibole
is common in igneous rocks?
A) Hornblende B) Actinolite
C) Anthophyllite D) Tremolite
77. S .Volcanic glasses older than
carboniferous age are not known
R. Glasses were not formed during
pre-Carboniferous times
A) Both S and R are true B) S is true and R is false
C) Both S and R are false D) R is true and S is false
78. The general
sequence in the crystallization of minerals in igneous rocks is
A) Ferromagnesian minerals, Quartz,
Feldspar, Accessories
B) Feldspar, Accessories, Ferromagnesian
minerals, Quartz
C) Accessories, Ferromagnesian minerals,
Feldspar, Quartz,
D) Ferromagnesian minerals, Accessories,
Feldspar, Quartz
79. Fine grain size of igneous rocks
indicate
A) Slow cooling B) High mobility of ions
C) Larger
concentration of ions D) None
of these
80. The term conglomerate indicates
A) Grain size only B) Mineral composition only
C) Mode of occurrence only D) Both grain size and composition
81. In Wentworth
Udden Scale particles ranging in size between 1/16mm and 1/256mm are named
A) Pebble B) Clay C) Sand D) Silt
82. In sandy shale
A) Sand content is more than clay
B) Sand and clay content are equal
C) Clay content is more than sand
D) Quartz pebbles are found with clay
83. Match the following and choose the
correct answer
Rock Class
1. Sandstone a. Rudaceous
2. Conglomerate b. Argillaceous
3. Shale c. Calcareous
4. Limestone d. Arenaceous
A) 1-b,2-c,3-d,4-a B) 1-c,2-d,3-a,4-b
C) 1-d,2-a,3-b,4-c D) 1-a,2-c,3-d,4-b
84. Which one is a
typical evaporite?
A) Clay B) Gypsum C) Bauxite D) Sulphur
85. The most conspicuous mineral in
greensand is
A) Apatite B) Microcline C) Glaucophane D)
Glauconite
86. Laumontite, Lawsonite and glaucophane
are typically found in
A) Sedimentary rocks B) Metamorphic rocks
C) Volcanic rocks D) Intrusive rocks
87. Serpentinites are formed by the
metamorphism of
A) Pelitic rocks B) Marls C) Ultramafic
rocks D) Greywackes
88. The grass green clinopyroxene found in
eclogite
A) Augite B) Aegerine C) Diopside D)
Omphacite
89. Which one is not true of contact
metamorphism?
A) Have regional extent
B) Borders large igneous intrusions
C) Effect of heat is predominant
D) Contact aureoles are common
90. Which one has the maximum number of sets
of cleavages?
A) Sphalerite B) Halite C) Cummingtonite D)
Diamond
91. Find the correct pair
A) Stibnite – Antimony B) Magnesite –
Manganese
C) Galena – Zinc D) Cassiterite – Cobalt
92. Native sulphur is formed by
A) Hydrothermal process
B) Evaporation
C) Supergene sulphide enrichment
D) Sublimation
93. Find the correct pair
A) Granite – Gypsum B) Anorthosite –
Chromite
C) Kimberlite – Chrysoberyl D) Gabbro -
Cassiterite
94. The Si:O ratio
in tectosilicates is
A) 1:4 B) 1:3 C) 2:7 D) 1:2
95. Match the following and choose the
correct answer
Deposit Locality
1. Galena a. Panna
2. Chalcopyrite b. Sukinda
3. Chromite c. Khetri
4. Diamond d. Zawar
e. Kodarma
A) 1-b,2-d,3-a,4-e B) 1-d,2-c,3-b,4-a
C) 1-c,2-e,3-a,4-b D) 1-e,2-a,3-d,4-c
96. Fissure veins, Saddle reefs and
Stockworks are
A) Contact metasomatic deposits
B) Magmatic deposits
C) Hydrothermal cavity filling deposits
D) Hydrothermal replacement deposits
97. Which one of the following is not a
product of residual process?
A) Bauxite B) Clay C) Iron D) Gold
98. Emerald is a bright green gem variety of
A) Chrysoberyl ` B) Beryl C) Chrysocolla D) Microcline
99. The common supergene sulphide of copper
A) Bornite B) Chalcopyrite C) Bornonite D)
Chalcocite
100. In Kerala glass sand deposits are
located in
A) Cherthala B) Chavara C) Payyangadi D)
Neendakara
101. Which is a stratigraphic trap for
petroleum?
A) Monocline B) Unconformity C) Terrace D)
Fissure
102. Which one of the following is true?
A) Bituminous coal has high heating value
B) Lignite is also called cambrian coal
C) Peat is a variety of coal
D) Anthracite has low heating value
103. Oxidation of
sulphide minerals on the surface gives rise to
A) Comb structure B) Gossan C) Pay streak D)
Bonanza
104. Which is the
most suitable method for the exploration of sulphide ore bodies?
A) Self-potential B) Resistivity C)
Seismic D) Magnetic
105. In which type of geophysical survey
Geophones are used?
A) Resistivity B) Magnetic C) Seismic D) Gravity
106. The East Coast Bauxite deposits of
India had formed from
A) Khondalite B) Kodurite C) Charnockite D)
Basalt
107. Temporary or very short-lived streams
are called
A) Effluent B) Ephemeral C) Influent D)
Obsequent
108. The mineral which gives the binding
property for cement
A) Calcite B) Bauxite C) Clay D) Gypsum
109. In selecting a
building stone which one of the following is not considered?
A) Availability B) Age C) Durability D)
Strength
110. Vertical or
inclined openings in underground mines which serve as a means of entry
A) Shaft B) Cross-cut C) Stope D) Drift
111. The deepest underground mine in India
is located at
A) Kolar B) Zawar C) Malanjkhand D)
Agnigundala
112. Bouguer anomaly is associated with
----------- survey
A) Geological B) Magnetic C) Gravity D)
Seismic
113. The main heavy metal pollutant which
caused the Itaiitai disease in Japan
A) Zinc B) Lead C)
Mercury D) Cadmium
114. Natural levees are formed by
--------------- processes
A) Glacial B) Volcanic C) Aeolian D) Fluvial
115. Richter Scale
measures -------------------- of earthquakes
A) Intensity B) Depth to focus C) Magnitude
D) Intensity and Magnitude
116. For almost all groundwater motion, the
Reynold’s Number is
A) Between 1 and 5 B) >10 C) Between 5
and 10 D) <1
117. Which of these is a major cation in
ground water?
A) Silicon B) Potassium C) Aluminium D) Iron
118. The Ghyben – Herzberg equation is
related to
A) Safe yield B) Quality of ground water
C) Recharge of wells D) Fresh and saline
water interface
119. Among the
following which is not considered as an atmospheric pollutant?
A) SO2 B) NO2 C) Dust D) O3
120. Which one is correct with regard to
confined aquifers?
A) Permeable layer is sandwiched between
impermeable layers
B) Impermeable layer is found between
permeable layers
C) Porous layer overlies impermeable layer
only
D) Porous layer underlies impermeable layer
only
