EARTH, ATMOSPHERIC, OCEAN AND PLANETARY SCIENCES
1. In X-ray diffraction, the equation,
n λ = 2dsin θ is known as ______ law.
(A) Roentgen
(B) Becquerel
(C) Curie
(D) Braggs
2. Which one of the following statements is
correct ?
(A) Komatiite is an ultrabasic plutonic
rock
(B) Syenite is an acidic volcanic rock
(C) Tholeiite is a basic volcanic rock
(D) Dunite is an Mg rich carbonate rock
3. A very large joint which can be traced over
an extensive area is described commonly
as a
(A) Columnar joint
(B) Plunging fold
(C) Dome
(D) Master joint
4. Match the following
List I List- II
(Species) (Phylum)
a. Cidaris 1. Coelentrata
b. Productus 2. Mollusca
c. Corals 3. Brachipoda
d. Trigonia 4. Echinodermata
a b c d
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
5. Assertion A : Different inorganic and
organic structures are
formed in sedimentary
rocks
Reason R : The structure ‘Petrifaction’
is of inorganic origin
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not
the correct explanation
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
6. The chemical structures formed in
sedimentary rocks are
I. Striations
II. Stylolites
III. Nodules
IV. Geodes
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) II, III and IV are correct
7. Oceans may be the source of
I. Zeolites
II. Nodules
III. Placer deposits
IV. Phosphorites
(A) II, III and IV are correct
(B) I, II and IV are correct
(C) I, II and III are correct
(D) I, II, III and IV are correct
8. Assertion A : Low atomic elements like
oxygen (O), hydrogen (H),
sulphur (S) and carbon (C)
are used in the studies of
stable isotope geochemistry.
Reason R : Isotopes of above cited low
atomic number elements
are well fractionated in the
course of certain chemical
and physical processes
occurring in nature, and the
variations in isotopic
compositions of these
elements are easy to
determine by mass
spectrometer.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not
the correct explanation
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
9. Arrange in the decreasing order of
Fe-content in the principal layers of the
earth, using the number code given below
I. Oceanic crust
II. Continental crust
III. Core
IV. Mantle
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, III, IV, I
(C) III, IV, II, I
(D) III, IV, I, II
10. The highest amount of moisture content
is present in the coaly matter
(A) Peat
(B) Lignite
(C) Bituminous coal
(D) Anthracite
11. The percentage of methane and ethane
constituents in natural gas is
(A) 50% to 60%
(B) 60% to 70%
(C) 70% to 80%
(D) 80% to 90%
12. Eastern Ghats of India represents a
(A) Craton
(B) Mobile belt
(C) Rift
(D) Proterozoic sedimentary basin
13. Eustatic sea level changes occur due to
the following reasons
I. Changes in volume of sea water due
to melting of glaciers
II. Change in the size of the ocean
basins that contains it
III. Decrease in the feeding by rivers
(A) I and III
(B) I and II
(C) II and III
(D) I, II and III
14. The porosity of a rock depends on
I. Shape of the grain
II. Packing of the grain
III. Size of the grain
IV. Sorting of the grain
(A) I and II
(B) I, II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV
(D) I, II and III
15. In Wenner’s array of resistivity
prospecting, the current electrode
separation is ________ of the potential
electrode separation.
(A) One fifth
(B) One third
(C) Four times
(D) Three times
16. In pedogenesis, transformation process
includes
1. Conversion of organic matter into
humus
2. Decomposition of primary to
secondary minerals
3. Removal of surface material by
erosion and leaching
4. Accumulation of materials in a lower
horizon
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(B) 1 and 2 are correct
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
17. Match List I and List II and identify the
correct answer using codes given
List I List II
(Concept) (Authors)
a. Uniformitarianism 1. Peltier
b. Geomorphic cycle 2. Aggassiz
c. Ice age 3. Davis
d. Morphogenetic regions 4. Hutton
5. Wood
a b c d
(A) 2 3 4 5
(B) 4 3 5 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1 3 2 4
18. Patterned ground is associated with the
climate
(A) Arid climate
(B) Tropical climate
(C) Temperate climate
(D) Periglacial climate
19. Assertion A : Limestone regions
standout as elevated
features in arid climates
and low lying features in
humid climates.
Reasoning R : limestone is susceptible
to chemical weathering
and resistant to physical
weathering.
(A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is
the correct explanation
(B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is
not the correct explanation
(C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
20. Occlusion is a process associated with
(A) Condensation
(B) Precipitation
(C) Temperate cyclone
(D) Cloud formation
21. Clouds which have a streak line form are
called
(A) Status
(B) Nimbus
(C) Cumulus
(D) Cirrus
22. Subsidence inversion is produced well
above the earth’s surface on account of
(A) Ocean currents
(B) Air current
(C) Cold current
(D) Electric current
23. World Forest Day is observed on
(A) March 21
(B) April 22
(C) June 5
(D) May 22
24. India is divided into ___ biogeographic
zones and ___ biogeographic provinces.
(A) 5, 10
(B) 8, 20
(C) 10, 25
(D) 15, 35
25. Assertion A : Natural balance of the
ecosystem is not only in
between production and
consumption but also
includes energy flow.
Reasoning R : Green plants are autrotopic
while decomposers are
saprotrophs.
(A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is
the correct explanation
(B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is
not the correct explanation
(C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
26. Which of the following location is significant
for renewable energy generation ?
(A) Sasan
(B) Kayathar
(C) Kaiga
(D) Mundra
27. Identify the correct statement
(A) The headquarters for Botanical
Survey of India is located at Dehradun
(B) Project Tiger was launched in April
1975
(C) Mangroves in India account for about
5% of world’s Mangrove vegetation
(D) Bharatpur Wildlife Sanctuary is
located in Karnataka
28. Which of the statements is correct ?
(A) Son is a major tributary river for
Ganges and it joins the northern bank
Ganges
(B) Rivers Bhagirathi and Alkananda
join at Rudraprayag to form Ganges
(C) Subansiri is a principal tributary river
for Mahanadi
(D) Godavari basin is the second largest
in India covering nearly 10% of total
area of the country
29. Which of the following statements are
correct about the impact of Green
Revolution on Indian agriculture ?
(1) Increases productivity levels of
certain crops
(2) Increases regional disparities in
agricultural development
(3) Widened the gap in the productivity
levels between the crops
(4) Widened the gap in the economic
levels between the farming
communities
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
30. As per 2011 census, the correct ranking
of States in terms of highest sex-ratio
(A) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Mizoram,
Manipur, Chattisgarh
(B) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Tamilnadu,
Manipur, Chattisgarh
(C) Kerala, Tamilnadu, Meghalaya,
Chattisgarh, Manipur
(D) Kerala, Tamilnadu, Andhra Pradesh,
Chattisgarh, Manipur
31. No information is lost by regular sampling
provided that the ratio of sampling
frequency to highest frequency is
(A) less than 0.5
(B) between 0.5 – 1.0
(C) between 1.0 – 1.5
(D) greater than 2.0
32. If mass is very long in the Y-direction and
has a uniform cross-section of arbitrary
shape in XZ planes the gravity attraction
derives from a
(A) Newtonian potential
(B) Geoid potential
(C) Logarithmic potential
(D) Induction potential
33. Gravity potential satisfies _____ equation
in free space.
(A) Laplace’s
(B) Poission’s
(C) Maxwell’s
(D) Linear
34. Simpson’s rule is a numerical method that
approximates the value of a definite
integral by using
(A) Linear relationship
(B) Quadratic polynomial
(C) Cubic polynomial
(D) Least square approximation
35. Which mineral has highest density ?
(A) Wolframite
(B) Uraninite
(C) Chromite
(D) Covdite
36. The degree to which a substance can be
magnetised is determined by its
(A) Magnetic susceptibility
(B) Magnetic induction
(C) Intensity of magnetisation
(D) Magnetic permeability
37. Gravimeters used in field measurements
have a sensitivity of about
(A) 1.0 m gal
(B) 0.1 m gal
(C) 0.01 m gal
(D) 0.001 m gal
38. In gravity prospecting low frequency
signal is associated with
(A) Regional effects
(B) Residual effects
(C) Diurnal variations
(D) Drift of gravimeter
39. Very low frequency electromagnetic
method is used to explore
(A) Horizontal stratified conducting
layers of the earth
(B) Vertical or nearly vertical conducting
portions of the earth
(C) Very deep discontinuities of the earth
(D) All the above
40. S.P. log in the water well gives information
about
1. porous and permeable formation
2. clear demarcation between permeable
and non-permeable formation
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) None of the above
41. Radioactive logging techniques are used
(A) Only in cased wells
(B) Only in uncased wells
(C) Both cased and uncased wells
(D) Only in open wells
42. Seismic refraction studies are employed
in
1. Oil and natural gas investigations
2. Ground water investigations
3. Archaeological investigations
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) All the above are correct
43. Subduction zone presents the following
type of boundary
(A) Diverging plate boundary
(B) Conservative boundary
(C) Convergent plate boundary
(D) None of the above
44. The earth quake intensity number ‘10’ on
Richter scale can be identified by
(A) Buildings tremble, parked vehicles
rock and wall clock stops
(B) Heavy damage to buildings and
collapse of reservoir begin
(C) Complete destruction and ground
badly twisted
(D) Buildings raged to ground and life
line destroyed
45. Koyana earth quake is an example of
1. Fault induced seismicity
2. Reservoir induced seismicity
3. Volcanic induced seismicity
(A) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(B) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) Only 1 and 2 are correct
46. When the temperature of an air mass
increases or decreases without addition
or removal of heat, the process is called
(A) Adiabatic process
(B) Normal lapse rate
(C) Occlusion
(D) Thermal inversion
III 12 A-08-03
47. The Atlantic Polar Front has its full
development during
(A) Spring
(B) Summer
(C) Winter
(D) Autumn
48. The lower limit of the ionosphere
(A) 70 – 80 km
(B) 80 – 120 km
(C) 120 – 160 km
(D) 160 – 200 km
49. Radio waves can be detected at great
distances especially at night. This is due
to the layer
(A) Mesosphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Lithosphere
(D) Ionosphere
50. In a T-Φ gram Normand’s III proposition
is applied to determine
(A) LCL
(B) CCL
(C) Thickness of layers
(D) Relative humidity
51. Homogeneous nucleation occurs when
the air parcel is
(A) Saturated
(B) Super-saturated
(C) Unsaturated
(D) All of the above
52. In hydrostatic equilibrium the balance will
be between
(A) Pressure gradient and gravity
(B) Pressure gradient and Coriolis Force
(C) Coriolis Force and gravity
(D) Coriolis Force and friction
53. The prime mechanism in the formation of
hail is
(A) Accretion
(B) Coalescence
(C) Condensation
(D) Dissipation
54. In the absence of external forces when the
centrifugal and the Coriolis forces are
equal and opposite, then the flow is called
(A) Gradient flow
(B) Inertial flow
(C) Geostrophic flow
(D) Cyclostrophic flow
55. The thermal wind is zero in a ________
atmosphere.
(A) Barotropic
(B) Baroclinic
(C) Neutral
(D) Standard
56. Baroclinic instability arises out of
(A) Horizontal shear
(B) Vertical shear
(C) Linear shear
(D) No shear
57. The ratio of available potential energy to
the total potential energy is
(A) 1/10
(B) 1/100
(C) 1/20
(D) 1/200
59. In an equivalent barotropic model
(A) The wind is constant with height
(B) The wind direction is constant with
height
(C) Wind is constant with height but the
wind direction changes with height
(D) Wind direction is constant with height
but the wind speed changes with
height
60. Wheeler and Hendon gives the magnitude
of
(A) Madden Julian oscillations
(B) El Nino southern oscillation
(C) Quasi biennial oscillations
(D) None of the above
61. In the general circulation ocean models
the Western boundary currents are
(A) Ekman boundary layers
(B) Munk boundary layers
(C) Stommel boundary layers
(D) Sverdrup boundary layers
III 14 A-08-03
62. In an estuary the salinity of water is
reduced due to
(A) Fresh water input
(B) Seawater incursion
(C) Incursion of tidal currents
(D) None of the above
63. In a baroclinic fluid
(A) Density is a function of pressure
(B) Density is not a function of pressure
(C) Density is a function of depth
(D) Density is a function of wave height
64. In oceans one can have
(A) Weather
(B) Climate
(C) Both weather and climate
(D) None of the above
65. Which of the following develop upwelling
on a seasonal basis ?
(A) Somali current
(B) East Arabian current
(C) South Jaua current
(D) All of the above
66. The Somali current is a
(A) Western boundary current
(B) Eastern boundary current
(C) Northern boundary current
(D) Southern boundary current
67. In sea water the most abundant element
present is
(A) Oxygen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Chlorine
(D) Sodium
68. The pH value of sea water falls in the range
of
(A) 4 – 6.5
(B) 7.5 – 8.4
(C) 9 – 15
(D) 16 – 26
69. Large volumes of bottom sediments are
transported long distances by
(A) Tidal action
(B) Icebergs
(C) Storm waves
(D) Turbidity currents
1 D 26 B 51 B
2 C 27 C 52 A
3 D 28 D 53 A
4 C 29 A 54 B
5 C 30 D 55 A
6 D 31 D 56 B
7 D 32 C 57 D
8 A 33 A 58 A
9 D 34 B 59 D
10 A 35 B 60 A
11 D 36 A 61 B
12 B 37 D 62 A
13 D 38 A 63 B
14 B 39 B 64 C
15 D 40 C 65 D
16 B 41 C 66 A
17 C 42 D 67 C
18 D 43 C 68 B
19 A 44 D 69 D
20 C 45 D 70 B
21 D 46 A 71 D
22 B 47 C 72 B
23 A 48 A 73 B
24 C 49 D 74 C
25 B 50 A 75 C
1. In X-ray diffraction, the equation,
n λ = 2dsin θ is known as ______ law.
(A) Roentgen
(B) Becquerel
(C) Curie
(D) Braggs
2. Which one of the following statements is
correct ?
(A) Komatiite is an ultrabasic plutonic
rock
(B) Syenite is an acidic volcanic rock
(C) Tholeiite is a basic volcanic rock
(D) Dunite is an Mg rich carbonate rock
3. A very large joint which can be traced over
an extensive area is described commonly
as a
(A) Columnar joint
(B) Plunging fold
(C) Dome
(D) Master joint
4. Match the following
List I List- II
(Species) (Phylum)
a. Cidaris 1. Coelentrata
b. Productus 2. Mollusca
c. Corals 3. Brachipoda
d. Trigonia 4. Echinodermata
a b c d
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
5. Assertion A : Different inorganic and
organic structures are
formed in sedimentary
rocks
Reason R : The structure ‘Petrifaction’
is of inorganic origin
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not
the correct explanation
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
6. The chemical structures formed in
sedimentary rocks are
I. Striations
II. Stylolites
III. Nodules
IV. Geodes
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) II, III and IV are correct
7. Oceans may be the source of
I. Zeolites
II. Nodules
III. Placer deposits
IV. Phosphorites
(A) II, III and IV are correct
(B) I, II and IV are correct
(C) I, II and III are correct
(D) I, II, III and IV are correct
8. Assertion A : Low atomic elements like
oxygen (O), hydrogen (H),
sulphur (S) and carbon (C)
are used in the studies of
stable isotope geochemistry.
Reason R : Isotopes of above cited low
atomic number elements
are well fractionated in the
course of certain chemical
and physical processes
occurring in nature, and the
variations in isotopic
compositions of these
elements are easy to
determine by mass
spectrometer.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not
the correct explanation
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
9. Arrange in the decreasing order of
Fe-content in the principal layers of the
earth, using the number code given below
I. Oceanic crust
II. Continental crust
III. Core
IV. Mantle
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, III, IV, I
(C) III, IV, II, I
(D) III, IV, I, II
10. The highest amount of moisture content
is present in the coaly matter
(A) Peat
(B) Lignite
(C) Bituminous coal
(D) Anthracite
11. The percentage of methane and ethane
constituents in natural gas is
(A) 50% to 60%
(B) 60% to 70%
(C) 70% to 80%
(D) 80% to 90%
12. Eastern Ghats of India represents a
(A) Craton
(B) Mobile belt
(C) Rift
(D) Proterozoic sedimentary basin
13. Eustatic sea level changes occur due to
the following reasons
I. Changes in volume of sea water due
to melting of glaciers
II. Change in the size of the ocean
basins that contains it
III. Decrease in the feeding by rivers
(A) I and III
(B) I and II
(C) II and III
(D) I, II and III
14. The porosity of a rock depends on
I. Shape of the grain
II. Packing of the grain
III. Size of the grain
IV. Sorting of the grain
(A) I and II
(B) I, II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV
(D) I, II and III
15. In Wenner’s array of resistivity
prospecting, the current electrode
separation is ________ of the potential
electrode separation.
(A) One fifth
(B) One third
(C) Four times
(D) Three times
16. In pedogenesis, transformation process
includes
1. Conversion of organic matter into
humus
2. Decomposition of primary to
secondary minerals
3. Removal of surface material by
erosion and leaching
4. Accumulation of materials in a lower
horizon
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(B) 1 and 2 are correct
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
17. Match List I and List II and identify the
correct answer using codes given
List I List II
(Concept) (Authors)
a. Uniformitarianism 1. Peltier
b. Geomorphic cycle 2. Aggassiz
c. Ice age 3. Davis
d. Morphogenetic regions 4. Hutton
5. Wood
a b c d
(A) 2 3 4 5
(B) 4 3 5 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1 3 2 4
18. Patterned ground is associated with the
climate
(A) Arid climate
(B) Tropical climate
(C) Temperate climate
(D) Periglacial climate
19. Assertion A : Limestone regions
standout as elevated
features in arid climates
and low lying features in
humid climates.
Reasoning R : limestone is susceptible
to chemical weathering
and resistant to physical
weathering.
(A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is
the correct explanation
(B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is
not the correct explanation
(C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
20. Occlusion is a process associated with
(A) Condensation
(B) Precipitation
(C) Temperate cyclone
(D) Cloud formation
21. Clouds which have a streak line form are
called
(A) Status
(B) Nimbus
(C) Cumulus
(D) Cirrus
22. Subsidence inversion is produced well
above the earth’s surface on account of
(A) Ocean currents
(B) Air current
(C) Cold current
(D) Electric current
23. World Forest Day is observed on
(A) March 21
(B) April 22
(C) June 5
(D) May 22
24. India is divided into ___ biogeographic
zones and ___ biogeographic provinces.
(A) 5, 10
(B) 8, 20
(C) 10, 25
(D) 15, 35
25. Assertion A : Natural balance of the
ecosystem is not only in
between production and
consumption but also
includes energy flow.
Reasoning R : Green plants are autrotopic
while decomposers are
saprotrophs.
(A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is
the correct explanation
(B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is
not the correct explanation
(C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
26. Which of the following location is significant
for renewable energy generation ?
(A) Sasan
(B) Kayathar
(C) Kaiga
(D) Mundra
27. Identify the correct statement
(A) The headquarters for Botanical
Survey of India is located at Dehradun
(B) Project Tiger was launched in April
1975
(C) Mangroves in India account for about
5% of world’s Mangrove vegetation
(D) Bharatpur Wildlife Sanctuary is
located in Karnataka
28. Which of the statements is correct ?
(A) Son is a major tributary river for
Ganges and it joins the northern bank
Ganges
(B) Rivers Bhagirathi and Alkananda
join at Rudraprayag to form Ganges
(C) Subansiri is a principal tributary river
for Mahanadi
(D) Godavari basin is the second largest
in India covering nearly 10% of total
area of the country
29. Which of the following statements are
correct about the impact of Green
Revolution on Indian agriculture ?
(1) Increases productivity levels of
certain crops
(2) Increases regional disparities in
agricultural development
(3) Widened the gap in the productivity
levels between the crops
(4) Widened the gap in the economic
levels between the farming
communities
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
30. As per 2011 census, the correct ranking
of States in terms of highest sex-ratio
(A) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Mizoram,
Manipur, Chattisgarh
(B) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Tamilnadu,
Manipur, Chattisgarh
(C) Kerala, Tamilnadu, Meghalaya,
Chattisgarh, Manipur
(D) Kerala, Tamilnadu, Andhra Pradesh,
Chattisgarh, Manipur
31. No information is lost by regular sampling
provided that the ratio of sampling
frequency to highest frequency is
(A) less than 0.5
(B) between 0.5 – 1.0
(C) between 1.0 – 1.5
(D) greater than 2.0
32. If mass is very long in the Y-direction and
has a uniform cross-section of arbitrary
shape in XZ planes the gravity attraction
derives from a
(A) Newtonian potential
(B) Geoid potential
(C) Logarithmic potential
(D) Induction potential
33. Gravity potential satisfies _____ equation
in free space.
(A) Laplace’s
(B) Poission’s
(C) Maxwell’s
(D) Linear
34. Simpson’s rule is a numerical method that
approximates the value of a definite
integral by using
(A) Linear relationship
(B) Quadratic polynomial
(C) Cubic polynomial
(D) Least square approximation
35. Which mineral has highest density ?
(A) Wolframite
(B) Uraninite
(C) Chromite
(D) Covdite
36. The degree to which a substance can be
magnetised is determined by its
(A) Magnetic susceptibility
(B) Magnetic induction
(C) Intensity of magnetisation
(D) Magnetic permeability
37. Gravimeters used in field measurements
have a sensitivity of about
(A) 1.0 m gal
(B) 0.1 m gal
(C) 0.01 m gal
(D) 0.001 m gal
38. In gravity prospecting low frequency
signal is associated with
(A) Regional effects
(B) Residual effects
(C) Diurnal variations
(D) Drift of gravimeter
39. Very low frequency electromagnetic
method is used to explore
(A) Horizontal stratified conducting
layers of the earth
(B) Vertical or nearly vertical conducting
portions of the earth
(C) Very deep discontinuities of the earth
(D) All the above
40. S.P. log in the water well gives information
about
1. porous and permeable formation
2. clear demarcation between permeable
and non-permeable formation
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) None of the above
41. Radioactive logging techniques are used
(A) Only in cased wells
(B) Only in uncased wells
(C) Both cased and uncased wells
(D) Only in open wells
42. Seismic refraction studies are employed
in
1. Oil and natural gas investigations
2. Ground water investigations
3. Archaeological investigations
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) All the above are correct
43. Subduction zone presents the following
type of boundary
(A) Diverging plate boundary
(B) Conservative boundary
(C) Convergent plate boundary
(D) None of the above
44. The earth quake intensity number ‘10’ on
Richter scale can be identified by
(A) Buildings tremble, parked vehicles
rock and wall clock stops
(B) Heavy damage to buildings and
collapse of reservoir begin
(C) Complete destruction and ground
badly twisted
(D) Buildings raged to ground and life
line destroyed
45. Koyana earth quake is an example of
1. Fault induced seismicity
2. Reservoir induced seismicity
3. Volcanic induced seismicity
(A) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(B) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) Only 1 and 2 are correct
46. When the temperature of an air mass
increases or decreases without addition
or removal of heat, the process is called
(A) Adiabatic process
(B) Normal lapse rate
(C) Occlusion
(D) Thermal inversion
III 12 A-08-03
47. The Atlantic Polar Front has its full
development during
(A) Spring
(B) Summer
(C) Winter
(D) Autumn
48. The lower limit of the ionosphere
(A) 70 – 80 km
(B) 80 – 120 km
(C) 120 – 160 km
(D) 160 – 200 km
49. Radio waves can be detected at great
distances especially at night. This is due
to the layer
(A) Mesosphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Lithosphere
(D) Ionosphere
50. In a T-Φ gram Normand’s III proposition
is applied to determine
(A) LCL
(B) CCL
(C) Thickness of layers
(D) Relative humidity
51. Homogeneous nucleation occurs when
the air parcel is
(A) Saturated
(B) Super-saturated
(C) Unsaturated
(D) All of the above
52. In hydrostatic equilibrium the balance will
be between
(A) Pressure gradient and gravity
(B) Pressure gradient and Coriolis Force
(C) Coriolis Force and gravity
(D) Coriolis Force and friction
53. The prime mechanism in the formation of
hail is
(A) Accretion
(B) Coalescence
(C) Condensation
(D) Dissipation
54. In the absence of external forces when the
centrifugal and the Coriolis forces are
equal and opposite, then the flow is called
(A) Gradient flow
(B) Inertial flow
(C) Geostrophic flow
(D) Cyclostrophic flow
55. The thermal wind is zero in a ________
atmosphere.
(A) Barotropic
(B) Baroclinic
(C) Neutral
(D) Standard
56. Baroclinic instability arises out of
(A) Horizontal shear
(B) Vertical shear
(C) Linear shear
(D) No shear
57. The ratio of available potential energy to
the total potential energy is
(A) 1/10
(B) 1/100
(C) 1/20
(D) 1/200
59. In an equivalent barotropic model
(A) The wind is constant with height
(B) The wind direction is constant with
height
(C) Wind is constant with height but the
wind direction changes with height
(D) Wind direction is constant with height
but the wind speed changes with
height
60. Wheeler and Hendon gives the magnitude
of
(A) Madden Julian oscillations
(B) El Nino southern oscillation
(C) Quasi biennial oscillations
(D) None of the above
61. In the general circulation ocean models
the Western boundary currents are
(A) Ekman boundary layers
(B) Munk boundary layers
(C) Stommel boundary layers
(D) Sverdrup boundary layers
III 14 A-08-03
62. In an estuary the salinity of water is
reduced due to
(A) Fresh water input
(B) Seawater incursion
(C) Incursion of tidal currents
(D) None of the above
63. In a baroclinic fluid
(A) Density is a function of pressure
(B) Density is not a function of pressure
(C) Density is a function of depth
(D) Density is a function of wave height
64. In oceans one can have
(A) Weather
(B) Climate
(C) Both weather and climate
(D) None of the above
65. Which of the following develop upwelling
on a seasonal basis ?
(A) Somali current
(B) East Arabian current
(C) South Jaua current
(D) All of the above
66. The Somali current is a
(A) Western boundary current
(B) Eastern boundary current
(C) Northern boundary current
(D) Southern boundary current
67. In sea water the most abundant element
present is
(A) Oxygen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Chlorine
(D) Sodium
68. The pH value of sea water falls in the range
of
(A) 4 – 6.5
(B) 7.5 – 8.4
(C) 9 – 15
(D) 16 – 26
69. Large volumes of bottom sediments are
transported long distances by
(A) Tidal action
(B) Icebergs
(C) Storm waves
(D) Turbidity currents
1 D 26 B 51 B
2 C 27 C 52 A
3 D 28 D 53 A
4 C 29 A 54 B
5 C 30 D 55 A
6 D 31 D 56 B
7 D 32 C 57 D
8 A 33 A 58 A
9 D 34 B 59 D
10 A 35 B 60 A
11 D 36 A 61 B
12 B 37 D 62 A
13 D 38 A 63 B
14 B 39 B 64 C
15 D 40 C 65 D
16 B 41 C 66 A
17 C 42 D 67 C
18 D 43 C 68 B
19 A 44 D 69 D
20 C 45 D 70 B
21 D 46 A 71 D
22 B 47 C 72 B
23 A 48 A 73 B
24 C 49 D 74 C
25 B 50 A 75 C
